Physics 2nd year guess Paper
2nd year physics guess short q
12.1,3,5,7,9
13.2,4,5,6,8,3
14.3,6,8,1o,11,14,15
15.1,5,9,1o,12,14,16,17
16.1,2,3,5,7,1o
17.2,3,9,1o
18.1,2,4,6,7,1o
19.1,2,4,6,9,14,19,2o,23,25,26
2o.1,3,4,5,9
21.2,8,12,14.,17,2o
Example :
12.2,4,6
14.1,3,4,6
13.1,2,3,4
15.1,3,5,8
16.2,7,6
17.1
18.1
19.2,5,6,7,9,1o
2o.1
21.2,3
Problem :
12.1,4,5,7,12,13
13.1,3,5,6
14.1,4,5,7,8,9
15.1,4,3,5,9,11,14,17,18
16.1,4,5,8,6,9,10
17.1,2,3,4,5
18.1,4,5
19.2,5,6,7,9,10
20.1,3,6,5,8,9
21.1,2,4,6,7
2nd year PHYSICS 2017.
(GUESS)
Ch12.
L.Qs
Coulmbs law, gauss law app, elctric potnial point charge, milikan method, capacitance dielectric.
NUMERICALS
12.3, 12.4, 12.5, 12.7, 12.12, 12.13.
EXAMPLES
12.2, 12.6.
Ch13
L.Qs
Resistivity nd temp dependnce, Emf nd terminl potntial diff, wheatstone bridge.
NUMERICALS
13.1, 13.2, 13.4, 13.5
EXAMPLE
13.3
Ch14
L.Qs
Amperes law and solenoid, magnetic force acting on a charge, e/m ratio, torque.
NUMERICALS
14.1, 14.2, 14.4, 14.5, 14.6, 14.7, 14.8, 14.9
EXAMPLES
14.3
Ch15
L.Qs
Motionl emf, faradays nd lenz laws, energy stored in an inductor, ac generatr, transformer.
NUMERICALS
15.4, 15.7, 15.11, 15.13, 15.14, 15.15, 15.17, 15.18
Ch16
L.Qs
Rc and rl series circuits, series parallel resonance circuits
NUMERICALS
16.1, 16.3, 16.4, 16.6, 16.7, 16.8, 16.9. 16.10
Ch17
L.Qs
Magnetic properties of solids, bnd theory, electric conduction.
NUMERICALS
17.1, 17.2, 17.3, 17.3
Ch18
L.Qs
Transistor as an amplifier, operation inverting non inverting amplifier.
NUMERICALS
18.1
EXAMPLES
18.3
Ch19
L.Qs
Results of special theory, photoelectric effect, wave nature particle, uncertainty principle.
NUMERICALS
19.4, 19.5, 19.6, 19.7, 19.8, 19.9
Ch20
L.Qs
Bhors atomic model complete(postulstes, interpretation, radii, energy, hydrogen emission), Laser.
NUMERICALS
20.2, 20.3, 20.4, 20.6, 20.7, 20.8, 20.9
Ch21
L.Qs
Mass spectrograph, half life. Nuclear fission, nuclear reactions, nuclear reactors, gm counter.
NUMERICALS
21.1, 21.2, 21.3, 21.6, 21.7.
Forwarded from Sajid Raseed CMS:
Physics 12th (2017)
Coulombs law,gauss's law wd aplictin,electric potential,paralel plate capacitor
S.q 12.3,12.5,12.7,12.9 pb. 1,4,5,6,7,13
Ch#13
Ohms law,effect of temp on resistanc,wheat stone bridge,potentiometer, s.q 2,4,5,6,8
Pb. 1,2,4,5
Ch#14. Amperes law,force on moving charge in M.F, e/m of electrn,galvanometer s.q 8,9,10,11,12,14,15pb.1,2,4,5,7,9
Ch#15.farady,lenz's laws,energy stored in an inductor,trnsfrmers.q 1,8,9,10,12,14,16,18 pb.3,4,7,11,14,15,17,18
Ch#16
Current Affair 8 May 2017
#current_affairs_08_05_2017_
.Pakistan external debt reaches to 79 billion dollars.
2.Pak Afghan to use google map to re settle border issue.
3. Data of 6th census phase 1 safely reached to federal board of stats. 63 districts.
4. Norway killed 200 reindeer to stop the epidemic disease.
5. Dutch officials on Monday opened what is being billed as one of the world's largest offshore wind farms, with 150 turbines . 600 megawatt production.
6. China invites India to join One-Belt-One-Road project.
1. World Red Cross Red Crescent Day is celebrated on 8 May each year.This date is the anniversary of the birth of Henry Dunant (born 8 May 1828), the founder of International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) and the recipient of the first Nobel Peace Prize. This year’s theme is “Less Known Red Cross Stories”.
2. Sohail Mahmood all set to take over as Pakistan's new envoy to India. Mahmood is currently working as Pakistan's ambassador to Turkey.
3. Renowned Pakistani sitarist Ustad Raees Khan has passed away. He was 77.
4. Ismail Hania became new head of Hamas.
5. Major General Mohammad Baqeri, the head of the Iranian armed forces was quoted that they will attack safe “havens” of terrorists on Pakistani soil.
6. Chairman Pakistan Electronic Media Regulatory Authority Absar Alam said on Monday that the organisation members are receiving threats.
7. ISIS head of Afghanistan Abdul Hasib was killed in a joint US-Afghan operation conducted on April 27.
8. Moody says Pakistan rating outlook stable, classified as B3.
9. PAKISTAN INTERNATIONAL AIRLINES'S LAST FLIGHT FROM MUMBAI TO KARACHI TAKES OFF
10. Shehbaz seeks public apology for Rs 10bn accusation, sends legal notice to Imran
2nd Year Guess Paper Urdu
Guess Urdu 2nd Year 2017
Khulasa:
Ch # 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 siako sabak:
Ch # 2, 3,5, 6, 12:
Nazam # 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Ghazals:
Dard, Mashafi, Ghalib, nasir kazmi
Essays:
Oswa-e-Husna, Muslim Itehad, Dehsat Gardi, urdu zuban, talemay Niswan ,science k karishmay naswan gadaa gari, Pasandeeda Kitab, samaji buraian, Internet ki Ahmiyat, hubay watan
Letters:
Hostel ki Zindagi, Taziyat, Nisabi Sargarmian, Tohfa ka Shukriya
Current Affair 7 May 2017
#current_affairs_07_05_2017
1. India cracks down on channels of Saudia and Pak in Indian Held Kashmir.
2. India becomes world’s biggest market for bikes.
3. Karachi becomes 5th filthiest city in the world. Indian capital Delhi is at top and Gawaliar is on 2nd number.
4. Britian defeated Australia to win Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey cup for the first time.
5. Water level at Keenjhar lake, dropped to 47 feet.
6. Pakistani proud, Sharmeen wins 49th annual Kennedy award for the price of forgiveness
7. IG FC major General, Nadeem Ahmad briefed the nation that they had killed 50 Afghani soldiers.
8. Pakistan ranks 106 among 113 countries in World Justice Project Rule of Law Index. Worse than Nepal, SL, India and Bangladesh.
9. US Secretary of State Rex Tillerson discussed conflict in Syria with Russian Foreign Minister Lavrov.
10. First woman judge of Delhi High Court Leila Seth passes away
11. VATICAN CITY: World’s oldest standing army has 40 new Swiss Guards
12. A US Navy SEAL was killed and two troops wounded in a clash with Al Shabaab militants in Somalia, US officials said on Friday, in what appeared to be the first US combat death in the country since the 1993 “Black Hawk Down” disaster.
Current Affair 5 May2017
#current_affairs_05_05_2017
1.Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff Committee General Zubair Mahmood Hayat has been awarded with King Abdul Aziz Medal of Excellence, the highest military award of Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. General Zubair Mahmood Hayat also called on General Abdur Rehman bin Saleh Al-Bunyan, Chief of General Staff, Royal Saudi Armed Forces at Jeddah.
2.UN gives 55 million dollars to India for peace keeping missions.
3.The ‘world’s most experienced plaque unveiler’, the Duke of Edinburgh, Prince Philip to retire from public duties at age of 96
4.The Supreme Court’s special bench on Friday constituted the Joint Investigation Team to probe funds used by Prime Minister. Wajid Zia, an Additional Director at the Federal Investigation Agency (FIA), will head the six-member JIT.
5.Pakistan has warned the Afghan government of retaliatory action if Kabul fails to stop its forces. The Foreign Office also handed over a demarche to Afghan chargé d’affaires Abdul Nasir Yousufi.
6.Amna Ahmad, A British-Pakistani politician is hoping to make it to the parliament in the elections scheduled for June 8 to counter the hard Brexit agenda of the Conservative party. She has been selected as lib dem Parliamentary candidate for Liberal Democrats, Britain’s third-largest party.
7.Russia and Iran which are allies of the Syrian regime as well as the rebel supporter Turkey signed a Russia-backed plan for creating safe zones in Syria. The pact which was signed in the Kazakhstan capital Astana
8.China’s New Jetliner, the Comac C919, Takes Flight for First Time
9.Sheraz Latif assumes charge as DG Radio Pakistan
10. India launches $36m ‘South Asian satellite’ project. Pakistan refused to be part of it.
Important questions of Criminal Procedure Code
Important question of CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE for interview of Civil Judge and any judicial post
00. under what provision the crimnal court can call the original recrord/ documents,
Ans the court has power under section 94 Crpc.
01. Weather magistrate has power to pass order for registration of FIR ?
Ans yes magistrate is empowered under section 156 (3) crpc can direct the SHO to register the FIR.
02. What is the provision for supply of documents weather it mandatory or discretion of court.
Ans. Supply of documents provisions in magistrate trial 241-c & 265-c is Sessions Trial and it is mandatory.
03. Define Charge & its Stages? Can a person charged with one offence be convicted of another offence if so?, when ?Alteration and modification charge?
A. A charge is the precise formulation of specific accusation made against the person. The object of the charge is to enable the accused the know the particular accusation made against him in order to meet and to be ready for them before evidences given as to make him able to meet his defence.
B. Particulars of the charge:
01. Specific name of the offence
02. Law or section of the law with which the offence is alleged have been committed
03. Time and place of the offence and the person against whom or the thing it was committed.
04. Data of the previous conviction for which punishment shall be enhanced.
C. The general rule is that accused cannot be convicted of an offence which he was not charged. The cased in which a person is charged of one offence still he can be convicted of another offences or exception to this general rule. These exceptions are provided in sections 237 and 238 of CrPC.
D. Police cannot amend the charge on their own and submit challan under without the approval of prosecution department. (1991 PCR LJ 723)
04. Can a person be charged in multiple cases?
A. Yes. General rule is that for every distinct offence of which any person is accused there shall be a separate charge; every such charge shall be tried separately.
The separate charge for distinct offences: mentioned section 233
05. Can a person be charged if his name is not mentioned in charge sheet, Provision?
A. Any person may give an application under section 190 to the magistrate to take cognizance of offence and charged the accused. And further more it is provided in the Cr PC under the title amendment in charge governed
06. Under what provision final report is submitted by police?
A. Final report is submitted under section 173 Cr. P C
07. What is Appeal?
A. Right of carrying a particular case from inferior court to superior court for ascertaining sustainability of judgement.
08. Can a Judicial Magistrate acquit accused at any time during the pendency of Trial? What is remedy against 249-A order?
A. Under Section 249-A A magistrate has a power to acquit an accused at any stage during the pendency of the trail. As 249-A is not the final order because magistrate can recall him on the basis of evidence.
B. If person is acquitted under section 249-A any person being aggrieved by the said order may file an acquittal appeal under section 417 before the High Court. No revision shall lie from said order.
09. Difference between 249 & 249- A?
A. Under section 249 magistrates may stop the proceeding when no complainant appears before the court. In the same way under section 249-A magistrate has the power to acquit the accused at any stage during the pendency of the trail.
B. Under section 249 once an accused discharged can be charged again. But under section 249-A magistrate can acquit the accused on the basis of evidence at any stage.
10. Whether order under section 249-A is final?
A. Order under 249-A is not final order. Magistrate has power to recall the accused on the basis of evidences established. An appeal can be filed against such order under 417 Cr.P.C
B. For example: If there are three accused and one of them was not found guilty then magistrate can acquit him at that stage of the proceeding and has power tio recall him when required.
11. Under what provisions appeal against acquittal is filed?
A. Acquittal appeal is filed under section 417.
B. Limitation: 30 Days. No special leave to appeal from an order of acquittal shall be entertained by HC after the expiry of 60 days from the date of that order (Government)
C. If in case of application for grant of special leave to appeal from an order of acquittal is refused no appeal from that order of acquittal shall lie
D. Power of appellate to punish, remand.......additional evidence (428)
E. Acquittal appeal once filed cannot be withdrawn.
12. What is the limitation period for appeal against acquittal
A. 30 days for private person and 60 days for government
13. Is there any Difference in appeal against acquittal filed by prosecution and complainant in Procedure?
A. Any aggrieved can file appeal against acquittal. There is limitation time for filing an appeal. As there is no sound difference between them.
14. Define Bail, Grounds for Grant & Rejection?
A. To give or deliver the accused in the hands of sureties. (496)
B. Granting of bail in bailable offences is a right of accused.
01. Right
C. Non bailable
01. It is given when no reasonable grounds for the commission of offence.
02. Any person under the age of 16 years, sick or infirm person, a woman.
03. It is provided as a matter of concession and not as a matter of right.
15. What is Habeas Corpus, where is it filed? Difference between 491 &199?
A. 199 is the constitutional remedy. Remedy under section 491, session judge and HC have power to give remedy. It is a procedural remedy.
B. Habeas corpus can be filed when life of person is in peril/danger. Issued in the case of illegal detention/unlawfully imprisoned.
C. Can be issued when a post card sent to judge by victim or his relative.
D. Habeas corpus means produce the body.
E. This keeps a government from imprisoning people unlawfully. Even given condition of the jail is poor and prisoner suffer.
F. It is filed in the Session Court and High Court.
16. Habeas Corpus is filed in District court or High Court?
A. In both courts.
17. What are the cases in which Habeas corpus can be filed against father?
A. Habeas Corpus under section 491 HC has got jurisdiction in matters pertaining to the custody of minors of tender age and it can be issued against the father and it is the speedy and appropriate remedy because mother’s first right to hold custody of minor in Islam it is also known as HIZANAT.
B. Case of the Japanese Lady: In this case honourable court observed that mother’s cradle is god’s cradle and unless she is disqualified her first right of custody stands fully established. Jurisdiction can be exercised under article 199 of the constitution as well as under section 491 crpc HIROKU_Muhammad v/s Muhammad Latif 1994 MLD 1682.
C. Recently case of minor Japanese daughter given to her mother in preference to Muslim father 1999 CLC 1202.
18. Whether Justice of peace can take special oath from any party?
A. No. He does not have powers to do so.
19. Once complaint dismissed /withdrawn ?can be filled again, Procedure?
A. In the cases where complaint is made against the relative and there after compromise made cannot be withdrawn without the permission of court.
B. Yes complain can be made again after the dismissal provided under section........
20. Narrate the procedure when accused died during the trail of case?
A. It is the principle in the criminal that personal action dies with the person. Therefore trail would end with the death of the accused.
21. Accused convicted for 5 years in offence of 302 with fine, Filled appeal, seeking suspension of sentence and grant of Bail, can same sentence be dismissed or not?
A. District judge can take the cognizance of the case as punishment under 302 is life imprisonment.
22. Application filed under section 544 Cr.pc to call eye witness/army officer to trial court, he refused, Remedy?
A. Court can call any person as witness to meet the ends of justice under session 544.
23. Can statement of accused 342 be treated as confessional statement?
A. No. Because the statement under section 342 is an answer against the allegation and question put to him by the judge if he admits the allegation then he shall be forwarded to the magistrate for recording the confessional statement under section 164 read with 364. Statement under 342 recorded by the concerned judge in whose court case is pending. While the confessional statement is always recorded by magistrate under section 164 read with 364.
24. In Criminal case on who burden of proof lies, What are the exemptions of burden of proof in criminal cases?
A. In criminal cased Burden of proof always lies on the prosecution but there are some exception to this rule which are given under
01. Plea of albi
02. Self defence
03. Insanity
04. Dishonouring of cheque.
In above mentioned cases burden of proof shifts on accused.
25. Can a private person arrest anyone?
A. Yes for the sake of preservation of peace if any individual whose sees it broken may restrain the liability of the person whom he sees the breaking it , as long as his conduct shows that public peace is likely to be endangered by this act.
26. 161? Difference between 161and 164?
A. Section 161 provides that police officer making an investigation may examine any person orally acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case and such person shall be bound to answer all questions relevant to case except questions the answer to which would tend to expose him to criminal charge or to penalty or forfeiture.
B. The statement under 161 is not signed by the person making it.
C. The statement under 164 is always recorded by the magistrate it may be confessional statement or it is self explanatory matter. A confession may be recorded by any magistrate. This statement cannot always dealt as confessional statement.
D. Statement under 364 is also recorded by magistrate in which procedure for the examination is given. In case he is making confessional statement.
27. Criminal conspiracy and its punishment?
A. Criminal conspiracy is defined under section 120-A PPC which says when two or more persons agreed to do or cause to be done
01. An illegal act or
02. An act which is not illegal by illegal means, such n agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy
03. Punishable with death or impoundment of life or rigorous punishment for a term of 2 years or upward and per crime abetted.
28. Abetment and its punishment?
A. 06 months punishment
29. Criminal remedy in dishonouring of cheque?
A. Criminal remedy against the dishonouring of the cheque is given in 489-F which says whoever dishonestly issues a cheque towards repayment of a loan or fulfilment of an obligation which is dishonoured on the presentation, shall be punishable with imprisonment extend to 03 years, with fine or with both unless he can establish, for which the burden of proof shall rest on him that he had made arrangements with his bank to ensure that the cheque would be honoured and that banks was at fault in not honouring the cheque.
30. Procedure of illegal dispossession?
A. A complaint is filed before session judge under section 3, 5, and 7 of illegal dispossession act, 2005 before the session court.
31. What are the remedies if SHO does not register the FIR?
A. An application under 22-A (6) clause 1 and 3 (by Justice of peace) and application under section 156 (3) before magistrate. And direct complaint 200 crpc.
32. What is the difference between F.I.R & Challan?
A. It is first information report dealt in section 154 Cr. P C. It is not a substantive piece of evidence. Its objective is to put law in motion.
B. Challan is mentioned in 173 Cr P C. When the investigation report is completed the station officer shall submit a report to magistrate to take the cognizance of the office is known as Challan. It contains 07 columns
33. 02. What is Remand (167) difference between Judicial Custody & Police Custody
A. Procedure when investigation cannot be completed in 24 hours fixed by the section 61 Cr. P C and there are grounds for believing that the accusation or information is well founded, the officer in charge of police station or police officer making the investigation shall forth with transmit to the nearest magistrate.
B. There are two types of remands
01. Judicial remand: means accused is sent to the judicial custody or judicial lock up.
02. Physical remand: means accused is given in the custody of police for the further investigation.
Important MCQS about United Nation Organization
What are the main powers and duties of the UN Secretary-General? Please select all that apply.
a) Provide support for peacekeeping activities.
b) Carry out a number of research functions and quasi management functions.
c) To approve or disapprove of UN resolutions.
d) All of the options given are correct.
Question 2
Who are the permanent members of the UN Security Council?
a) Japan, Germany, France, Britain, Canada, United States.
b) France, Russia, USA, Britain, China.
c) USA, Germany, Britain, Brazil, China, Nigeria.
d) USA, China, Britain, Germany, India.
Question 3
What are specialized UN agencies?
a) Large institutions which are part of the UN system that have their own constitutions, regularly assessed budgets, executive heads, and assemblies of state representatives, not subject to the management of the central system.
b) Institutions under the control of the General Assembly, which are mandated to look after a specialized topic in international relations.
c) UN regional bodies specialized in the economic and social issues of a region.
d) There are no specialized UN agencies.
Question 4
Who are the current members of the Trusteeship Council?
a) All members of the UN General Assembly.
b) Eleven Trust Territories and seven member states.
c) The permanent members of the Security Council.
d) It varies because membership is elected every year at the General Assembly plenary.
Question 5
What is classical peacekeeping?
a) Classical peacekeeping involves the establishment of a UN force under UN command to be placed between parties to dispute after a ceasefire.
b) UN forces under UN command likely to use force to achieve humanitarian ends.
c) UN forces under UN command used when order has collapsed within states.
d) UN forced deployed in an emergency basis to prevent genocide or ethnic cleansing.
Question 6
What are the main ways in which the UN became involved in maintaining peace and security in the mid-1990s? Please select all that apply.
a) By resisting aggression between states and attempting to resolve disputes within states,
b) By bettering the living conditions of least developed countries in the global south.
c) By focusing on conditions within states, including economic, social, and political conditions.
d) All of the options given are correct.
Question 7
What is the basis of the fear of relaxing the principle of non-intervention?
a) Because it may lead to military action by individual states without UN approval.
b) Because it may lead to UN intervention in the internal affairs of all states.
c) Because some developing countries are suspicious of what appears to be the granting of a license to Western developed states to intervene in their affairs.
d) Because individual sovereignty may become more important than national sovereignty.
Question 8
What are country strategy notes?
a) They are statements about the overall development process tailored to the specific needs of individual countries, setting out targets, roles and priorities.
b) A key feature of the country level reform process in the economic and social arrangements of the United Nations.
c) They are country-specific strategies set out by the United Nations General Assembly, later ratified by ECOSOC as part of the reform process to the UN.
d) None of the options given are correct.
Question 9
What is human security?
a) It is increased human capabilities in military security.
b) The security of people including their physical safety, their economic and social well-being, respect for their dignity, and the protection of human rights.
c) It is a realist approach to the security of the population within a state.
d) None of the options given are correct.
Question 10
Why will further UN reform be necessary?
a) Because the UN will never work democratically as long as it has vetoes in the Security Council.
b) Because of the heightened concern over terrorism, the pervasiveness of inequality and injustice around the world, and the predominance of United States military power, and the need for regional representation in the UN Security Council.
c) Because after Iraq war of 2003 no one believes in the UN any more.
d) All of the options given are correct.
The total number of members represented in General assembly is
191
193
195
197
(Ans:b)
The general assembly president serves the office for
6 months
1 year
1.5 years
2 years
(Ans:b)
The number of permanent members of UN Security Council is
3
4
5
6
(Ans:c)
The number of non-permanent members of UN Security Council is
8
10
12
14
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not permanent member of Security council?
France
China
Germany
United Kingdom
(Ans:c)
The Head office of International court of justice is situated at
Geneva
The Hague
New York
Paris
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not main organ of United Nations?
International Court of Justice
Economic and Social Council
Secretariat
International Monetary fund
(Ans:d)
The UN day is celebrated every year on
24th September
28th September
24th October
28th October
(Ans:c)
Which of the following is not function of United Nations Development Programme?
Protect refugees worldwide
Poverty reduction
Crisis prevention and recovery
Energy and environment
(Ans:a)
Which of the following UN agencies focuses on poverty reduction and the improvement of living standards worldwide?
World Bank
IMF
WHO
ILO
(Ans:a)
The Head office of International Labor organization is situated at
Paris
Geneva
New York
The Hague
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is world’s centre for co-operation in the nuclear field?
ILO
IAEA
CTBTO
ICAO
(Ans:b)
The UN Charter was signed on
24th June, 1945
26th June, 1945
24th July, 1945
26th July, 1945
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not an official language of United Nations?
Arabic
Portuguese
French
Spanish
(Ans:b)
a) Provide support for peacekeeping activities.
b) Carry out a number of research functions and quasi management functions.
c) To approve or disapprove of UN resolutions.
d) All of the options given are correct.
Question 2
Who are the permanent members of the UN Security Council?
a) Japan, Germany, France, Britain, Canada, United States.
b) France, Russia, USA, Britain, China.
c) USA, Germany, Britain, Brazil, China, Nigeria.
d) USA, China, Britain, Germany, India.
Question 3
What are specialized UN agencies?
a) Large institutions which are part of the UN system that have their own constitutions, regularly assessed budgets, executive heads, and assemblies of state representatives, not subject to the management of the central system.
b) Institutions under the control of the General Assembly, which are mandated to look after a specialized topic in international relations.
c) UN regional bodies specialized in the economic and social issues of a region.
d) There are no specialized UN agencies.
Question 4
Who are the current members of the Trusteeship Council?
a) All members of the UN General Assembly.
b) Eleven Trust Territories and seven member states.
c) The permanent members of the Security Council.
d) It varies because membership is elected every year at the General Assembly plenary.
Question 5
What is classical peacekeeping?
a) Classical peacekeeping involves the establishment of a UN force under UN command to be placed between parties to dispute after a ceasefire.
b) UN forces under UN command likely to use force to achieve humanitarian ends.
c) UN forces under UN command used when order has collapsed within states.
d) UN forced deployed in an emergency basis to prevent genocide or ethnic cleansing.
Question 6
What are the main ways in which the UN became involved in maintaining peace and security in the mid-1990s? Please select all that apply.
a) By resisting aggression between states and attempting to resolve disputes within states,
b) By bettering the living conditions of least developed countries in the global south.
c) By focusing on conditions within states, including economic, social, and political conditions.
d) All of the options given are correct.
Question 7
What is the basis of the fear of relaxing the principle of non-intervention?
a) Because it may lead to military action by individual states without UN approval.
b) Because it may lead to UN intervention in the internal affairs of all states.
c) Because some developing countries are suspicious of what appears to be the granting of a license to Western developed states to intervene in their affairs.
d) Because individual sovereignty may become more important than national sovereignty.
Question 8
What are country strategy notes?
a) They are statements about the overall development process tailored to the specific needs of individual countries, setting out targets, roles and priorities.
b) A key feature of the country level reform process in the economic and social arrangements of the United Nations.
c) They are country-specific strategies set out by the United Nations General Assembly, later ratified by ECOSOC as part of the reform process to the UN.
d) None of the options given are correct.
Question 9
What is human security?
a) It is increased human capabilities in military security.
b) The security of people including their physical safety, their economic and social well-being, respect for their dignity, and the protection of human rights.
c) It is a realist approach to the security of the population within a state.
d) None of the options given are correct.
Question 10
Why will further UN reform be necessary?
a) Because the UN will never work democratically as long as it has vetoes in the Security Council.
b) Because of the heightened concern over terrorism, the pervasiveness of inequality and injustice around the world, and the predominance of United States military power, and the need for regional representation in the UN Security Council.
c) Because after Iraq war of 2003 no one believes in the UN any more.
d) All of the options given are correct.
The total number of members represented in General assembly is
191
193
195
197
(Ans:b)
The general assembly president serves the office for
6 months
1 year
1.5 years
2 years
(Ans:b)
The number of permanent members of UN Security Council is
3
4
5
6
(Ans:c)
The number of non-permanent members of UN Security Council is
8
10
12
14
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not permanent member of Security council?
France
China
Germany
United Kingdom
(Ans:c)
The Head office of International court of justice is situated at
Geneva
The Hague
New York
Paris
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not main organ of United Nations?
International Court of Justice
Economic and Social Council
Secretariat
International Monetary fund
(Ans:d)
The UN day is celebrated every year on
24th September
28th September
24th October
28th October
(Ans:c)
Which of the following is not function of United Nations Development Programme?
Protect refugees worldwide
Poverty reduction
Crisis prevention and recovery
Energy and environment
(Ans:a)
Which of the following UN agencies focuses on poverty reduction and the improvement of living standards worldwide?
World Bank
IMF
WHO
ILO
(Ans:a)
The Head office of International Labor organization is situated at
Paris
Geneva
New York
The Hague
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is world’s centre for co-operation in the nuclear field?
ILO
IAEA
CTBTO
ICAO
(Ans:b)
The UN Charter was signed on
24th June, 1945
26th June, 1945
24th July, 1945
26th July, 1945
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not an official language of United Nations?
Arabic
Portuguese
French
Spanish
(Ans:b)
Solved Lecturer Economics Past Papers
1. The fundamental economic problem faced by all societies is:
a. unemployment
b. inequality
c. poverty
d. scarcity
2. "Capitalism" refers to:
a. the use of markets
b. government ownership of capital goods
c. private ownership of capital goods
d. private ownership of homes & cars
3. There are three fundamental questions every society must answer. Which of the following is/are one of these questions?
a. What goods and services are to be produced?
b. How are the goods and services to be produced?
c. Who will get the goods and services that are produced?
d. All of the above
4. If you were working full-time now, you could earn $20,000 per year. Instead, you are working part-time while going to school. In your current part-time job, you earn $5,000 per year. At your school, the annual cost of tuition, books, and other fees is $2,000. The opportunity cost of completing your education is:
a. $2,000
b. $5,000
c. $17,000
d. $20,000
e. $22,000
5. The bowed shape of the production possibilities curve illustrates:
a. the law of increasing marginal cost
b. that production is inefficient
c. that production is unattainable
d. the demand is relatively inelastic
6. You have taken this quiz and received a grade of 3 out of a possible 10 points (F). You are allowed to take a second version of this quiz. If you score 7 or more, you can raise your score to a 7 (C). You will need to study for the second version. In making a rational decision as to whether or not to retake the test, you should
a. always retake the quiz
b. consider only the marginal benefits from of retaking the quiz (four extra points)
c. consider only the marginal opportunity costs from taking the quiz (the time spent
studying and taking the quiz)
d. consider both the marginal benefits and the marginal opportunity costs of retaking the quiz
7. The law of demand states that:
a. as the quantity demanded rises, the price rises
b. as the price rises, the quantity demanded rises
c. as the price rises, the quantity demanded falls
d. as supply rises, the demand rises
8. The price elasticity of demand is the:
a. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price
b. percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded
c. dollar change in quantity demanded divided by the dollar change in price
d. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in quantity supplied
9. Community Colleges desired to increase revenues. They decided to raise fees paid by students with Bachelors degrees to $50 per unit because they believed this would result in greater revenues. But in reality, total revenues fell. Therefore, the demand for Community College courses by people with Bachelors degrees must have actually been:
a. relatively inelastic
b. unit elastic
c. relatively elastic
d. perfectly elastic
10. The demand for a product would be more inelastic:
a. the greater is the time under consideration
b. the greater is the number of substitutes available to buyers
c. the less expensive is the product in relation to incomes
d. all of the above
Answers: D C D C A D C A C C
1. In the case of agriculture,
a. the demand has shifted to the right more than the supply has shifted to the right
b. the demand has shifted to the right less than the supply has shifted to the right
c. the demand has shifted to the left more than the supply has shifted to the left
d. the demand has shifted to the left less than the supply has shifted to the left
2. The agricultural price support program is an example of
a. a price ceiling
b. a price floor
c. equilibrium pricing
3. If there is a price floor, there will be
a. shortages
b. surpluses
c. equilibrium
4. If there is a price ceiling, there will be
a. shortages
b. surpluses
c. equilibrium
5. If there is a price ceiling, which of the following is NOT likely to occur?
a. rationing by first-come, first-served
b. black markets
c. gray markets
d. sellers providing goods for free that were formerly not free
6. The goal of a pure market economy is to best meet the desires of
a. consumers
b. companies
c. workers
d. the government
7. In a pure market economy, which of the following is a function of the price?
I. provide information to sellers and buyers , II. provide incentives to sellers and buyers
a. I only
b. II only
c. both I and II
d. neither I nor II
8. In a market system, sellers act in ____________ interest , but this leads to behaviors in ____________ interest.
a. self; self
b. self; society’s
c. society’s; society’s
d. society’s; self
9. The law of diminishing (marginal) returns states that as more of a variable factor is added to a certain amount of a fixed factor, beyond some point:
a. Total physical product begins to fall
b. The marginal physical product rises
c. The marginal physical product falls
d. The average physical product falls
10. Why is the law of diminishing marginal returns true?
a. specialization and division of labor
b. spreading the average fixed cost
c. limited capital
d. all factors being variable in the long-run
Answers: B B B A D A C B C C
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopoly?
a. one seller of the product
b. low barriers to entry
c. close substitute products
d. perfect information
2. In pure monopoly, what is the relation between the price and the marginal revenue?
a. the price is greater than the marginal revenue
b. the price is less than the marginal revenue
c. there is no relation
d. they are equal
3. In order to maximize profits, a monopoly company will produce that quantity at which the:
a. marginal revenue equals average total cost
b. price equals marginal revenue
c. marginal revenue equals marginal cost
d. total revenue equals total cost
4. Quantity Price Total Cost
1 $100 $ 60
2 95 130
3 90 210
4 85 300
5 80 400
This monopolist should produce:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
5. Compared to the case of perfect competition, a monopolist is more likely to:
a. charge a higher price
b. produce a lower quantity of the product
c. make a greater amount of economic profit
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following is necessary for a natural monopoly?
a. economies of scale
b. a high proportion of the total cost is the cost of capital goods
c. the market is very small
d. all of the above
7. Which of the following is true about the way by which SDG&E has been regulated by the PUC?
a. SDG&E has been allowed to earn very high economic profits
b. The profits of SDG&E are calculated as a percent of the value of the capital goods
c. When the demand for electricity would fall, the price of electricity would also fall
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following best defines price discrimination?
a. charging different prices on the basis of race
b. charging different prices for goods with different costs of production
c. charging different prices based on cost-of-service differences
d. selling a certain product of given quality and cost per unit at different prices to different buyers
9. In order to practice price discrimination, which of the following is needed?
a. some degree of monopoly power
b. an ability to separate the market
c. an ability to prevent reselling
d. all of the above
10. In price discrimination, which section of the market is charged the higher price?
a. the section with the richest people
b. the section with the oldest people
c. the section with the most inelastic demand
d. the section with the most elastic demand
Answers: A A C C D D B D D C
1. Which of the following concepts represents the extra revenue a firm receives from the services of an additional unit of a factor of production?
a. total revenue
b. marginal physical product
c. marginal revenus product
d. marginal revenue
2. Workers Quantity Produced
1 15
2 28
3 39
4 48
5 55
6 60
This company is a profit-maximizing firm selling in a competitive product market and hiring in a competitive labor market. It uses semi-skilled labor to produce dampers used in office building ventilation systems. Assume that the current market price per damper is $50 and that the prevailing weekly salary per semi-skilled worker is $550. This company should employ ______ workers.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
3. The demand for labor is the same as the
a. marginal revenue product
b. marginal physical product
c. marginal cost
d. wage
4. The demand for labor slopes down and to the right because of
a. the law of demand
b. the iron law of wages
c. the law of diminishing marginal returns
d. economies of scale
5. The demand for labor will be more elastic if:
a. there are few substitutes for labor
b. there is a short time under consideration
c. labor is a large percent of the total cost of production
d. the demand for the product is relatively inelastic
e. all of the above
6. Skills that can be transferred to other employers are called:
a. general skills
b. specific skills
c. non-pecuniary skills
d. all of the above
7. Which skills are most likely to be paid for by the employer?
a. General skills
b. Specific skills
c. Educational skills
8. If worker A earns more in wages than worker B, it could be because:
a. The product made by worker A sells for a higher price than that made by worker B
b. Worker A uses more capital per worker than worker B
c. Worker A has more natural ability than worker B
d. All of the above
9. Skills that embodied in a person are called
a. Human capital
b. Embodied skills
c. Physical capital
d. Experience skills
10. “Treating an individual as typical of a group” is the definition of
a. pure discrimination
b. statistical discrimination
c. human capital
d. specific skills
Answers: C B A C C A B D A B
1. If there are 50 firms in a industry, each selling 2% of the total sales, the concentration ratio is:
a. 50%
b. 2% €
c. 100%
d. 8%
2. When Daimler Benz, maker of the Mercedes, bought Chrysler, the merger was
a. horizontal
b. vertical
c. conglomerate
Questions 3 through 10 involve the functions of the government in a world of laissez faire. The functions are the following:
A. Create and Enforce the "Rules"
B. Promote or Maintain Competition
C. Provide Information
D. Provide Public Goods
E. Reduce Negative Externalities (External Costs) through regulations or through taxes
F. Subsidize Positive Externalities (External Benefits)
G. Provide Merit Goods
H. Redistribute Income on the Basis of Need
For each of the following, choose the letter that best describes the function of government.
3. The government provides anti-trust laws.
4. The government subsidizes the building of new stadiums and arenas.
5. The government provides for military defense.
6. The government has a program of social security to provide a pension for the elderly.
7. The government requires that all gasoline stations post their prices in signs large enough
to be seen by a reasonable person from the street.
8. The government requires people to have a smog control device in their cars.
9. The government makes the beach free for everyone
10. The government makes laws that determine certain behaviors that a corporation must engage in and other behaviors that a corporation cannot engage in.
Answers: D A B F D H C E G A
1. The largest source of tax revenue for the federal government is:
a. the personal income tax
b. the social security tax
c. the property tax
d. the sales tax
2. When my income was $100,000, I paid $10,000 in taxes. When my income became $200,000, I paid $40,000 in taxes. My marginal tax rate is:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
3. The tax is question #2 is:
a. progressive
b. regressive
c. proportional
4. Which of the following taxes is regressive?
a. the federal income tax
b. the state income tax
c. the sales tax
d. the Medicare tax
5. Assume that there are two goods, A and B. In 1996, Americans produced 10 units of A at a price of $10 and 20 units of B at a price of $20. In 2002, Americans produced 20 units of A at a price of $20 and 30 units of B at a price of $30. The Nominal GDP for 2002 is:
a. $100
b. $400
c. $500
d. $900
e. $1300
6. Using the numbers in question 5, the Real GDP for 2002 is:
a. $400 b. $500 c. $800 d. $900 e. $1,300
7. Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. Business Investment Spending occurs when individuals buy stock in the stock market
b. Productivity is the United States grew very slowly between 1973 and 1996
c. Because of discouraged workers, the official unemployment rate is too high
d. “Full employment” occurs when there is no frictional unemployment
8. Immediately after a trough, we would expect to have a/an
a. peak
b. recession
c. recovery
d. another trough
9. Last week, Martha spent one day cleaning a house. For this, she was paid $50. The rest of the week, she spent looking for a job. Martha would be classified as
a. employed
b. unemployed
c. not in the labor force
10. John lost his accounting job when Montgomery Wards closed its stores in San Diego. He looked for a similar job for ten months before finding an accounting job at Sears. During the month John was unemployed, he was
a. frictionally unemployed
b. seasonally unemployed
c. cyclically unemployed
d. structurally unemployed
Answers: A C A C E C B C A D
1. Define average tax rate
Define marginal tax rate
2. Define progressive tax
Define regressive tax
Define proportional tax
3. Define indexation
4. Define Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Define Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
5. Define business investment spending
6. Briefly explain how the official unemployment rate is calculated.
7. Define frictional unemployment
Define cyclical unemployment
Define structural unemployment
Define “full employment”
Economics 100 Quiz #7, Fall 2002
1. Assume that there are only two goods: A and B
In the base year, Quantity Price
A 10 $1
B 10 $4
In the current year, Quantity Price
A 20 $ 5
B 25 $20
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the current year is:
a. 50
b. 100
c. 200
d. 500
e. 600
2. Which of the following groups is most hurt by unexpected inflation?
a. workers with cost of living adjustments in their labor contracts
b. homeowners
c. people with large debts to pay for their homes and cars
d. people with large retirement savings held in savings accounts
3. If the nominal interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 2%, the real interest rate is:
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 7%
e. 2 ½%
4. For which of the following reasons might inflation cause Real GDP to grow slower than it otherwise would?
a. Inflation makes everyone poorer
b. Inflation reduces the value of consumer debt
c. Inflation increases business investment spending
d. Inflation decreases savings in financial form
5. Disposable Income is equal to:
a. National Income c. National Income Minus Taxes
b. Real GDP
c. National Income Minus Taxes
d. National Income Minus Taxes Plus Transfers
6. Assume that Potential Real GDP equals $10,000. National Income is therefore $10,000. Of this, consumers will pay $2,000 in taxes, save $1,000, and spend $7,000 on consumer goods. Business Investment spending is $2000. In order to avoid recessions and inflation (to have equilibrium), the government should have a:
a. balanced budget
b. budget deficit of $1000
c. budget surplus of $1000
d. budget deficit of $2000
7. According to Keynes, when the Great Depression started, the government should have:
a. done nothing
b. decreased the money supply
c. had a large increase in government spending
d. enacted high tariffs, such as the Smoot-Hawley Tariff
8. If the government lowers taxes by $10 billion, the Real GDP will rise by
a. more than $10 billion
b. less than $10 billion
c. exactly $10 billion
9. Which of the following is an automatic stabilizer?
a. unemployment benefits
b. spending on education
c. defense spending
d. net interest
10. “Crowding out” means that
a. a government budget deficit lowers interest rates and causes investment spending to rise
b. an increase in marginal tax rates lowers production
c. a government budget deficit raises interest rates and causes investment spending to fall
d. a government budget deficit raises American exports and lowers American imports
Answers: D D B D D C C A A C
1. Which of the following IS a function of money?
a. medium of exchange
b. store of value
c. unit of accounting
d. all of the above
2. Which of the following is a component of M-1?
a. savings deposits
b. credit card
c. checkable deposits
d. gold
3. Which of the following is a NOT component of M-2?
a. small time deposits
b. money market mutual funds
c. stocks
d. checkable deposits
4. Which of the following is true about the Federal Reserve System (Fed)?
a. it is a system of 12 central banks
b. its Board of Governors is elected by a vote of the people
c. its main policy-making body is the FDIC
d. it accepts deposits from the public and makes loans to businesses
e. all of the above
5. An IOU of the Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco to Bank of America is called:
a. discounts
b. federal funds
c. reserves
d. collateral
6. Which of the following is the most liquid?
a. a savings account
b. a 6 month CD
c. a home
d. water
7. The monetary base is composed of:
a. gold and silver
b. currency only
c. currency and reserves
d. currency and checkable deposits
8. If the monetary base is increased by $1,000 and the reserve requirement is 10% (1/10), by how much will the money supply be increased?
a. $100
b. $1,000
c. $5,000
d. $10,000
9. If the Federal Reserve wishes to increase the money supply, it should:
a. raise the reserve requirement
b. raise the discount rate
c. buy Treasury securities in the open market
d. all of the above
10. An increase in the money supply will cause interest rates to
a. rise
b. fall
c. remain unchanged
Answers: D C C A C A C D C B
a. unemployment
b. inequality
c. poverty
d. scarcity
2. "Capitalism" refers to:
a. the use of markets
b. government ownership of capital goods
c. private ownership of capital goods
d. private ownership of homes & cars
3. There are three fundamental questions every society must answer. Which of the following is/are one of these questions?
a. What goods and services are to be produced?
b. How are the goods and services to be produced?
c. Who will get the goods and services that are produced?
d. All of the above
4. If you were working full-time now, you could earn $20,000 per year. Instead, you are working part-time while going to school. In your current part-time job, you earn $5,000 per year. At your school, the annual cost of tuition, books, and other fees is $2,000. The opportunity cost of completing your education is:
a. $2,000
b. $5,000
c. $17,000
d. $20,000
e. $22,000
5. The bowed shape of the production possibilities curve illustrates:
a. the law of increasing marginal cost
b. that production is inefficient
c. that production is unattainable
d. the demand is relatively inelastic
6. You have taken this quiz and received a grade of 3 out of a possible 10 points (F). You are allowed to take a second version of this quiz. If you score 7 or more, you can raise your score to a 7 (C). You will need to study for the second version. In making a rational decision as to whether or not to retake the test, you should
a. always retake the quiz
b. consider only the marginal benefits from of retaking the quiz (four extra points)
c. consider only the marginal opportunity costs from taking the quiz (the time spent
studying and taking the quiz)
d. consider both the marginal benefits and the marginal opportunity costs of retaking the quiz
7. The law of demand states that:
a. as the quantity demanded rises, the price rises
b. as the price rises, the quantity demanded rises
c. as the price rises, the quantity demanded falls
d. as supply rises, the demand rises
8. The price elasticity of demand is the:
a. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price
b. percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded
c. dollar change in quantity demanded divided by the dollar change in price
d. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in quantity supplied
9. Community Colleges desired to increase revenues. They decided to raise fees paid by students with Bachelors degrees to $50 per unit because they believed this would result in greater revenues. But in reality, total revenues fell. Therefore, the demand for Community College courses by people with Bachelors degrees must have actually been:
a. relatively inelastic
b. unit elastic
c. relatively elastic
d. perfectly elastic
10. The demand for a product would be more inelastic:
a. the greater is the time under consideration
b. the greater is the number of substitutes available to buyers
c. the less expensive is the product in relation to incomes
d. all of the above
Answers: D C D C A D C A C C
1. In the case of agriculture,
a. the demand has shifted to the right more than the supply has shifted to the right
b. the demand has shifted to the right less than the supply has shifted to the right
c. the demand has shifted to the left more than the supply has shifted to the left
d. the demand has shifted to the left less than the supply has shifted to the left
2. The agricultural price support program is an example of
a. a price ceiling
b. a price floor
c. equilibrium pricing
3. If there is a price floor, there will be
a. shortages
b. surpluses
c. equilibrium
4. If there is a price ceiling, there will be
a. shortages
b. surpluses
c. equilibrium
5. If there is a price ceiling, which of the following is NOT likely to occur?
a. rationing by first-come, first-served
b. black markets
c. gray markets
d. sellers providing goods for free that were formerly not free
6. The goal of a pure market economy is to best meet the desires of
a. consumers
b. companies
c. workers
d. the government
7. In a pure market economy, which of the following is a function of the price?
I. provide information to sellers and buyers , II. provide incentives to sellers and buyers
a. I only
b. II only
c. both I and II
d. neither I nor II
8. In a market system, sellers act in ____________ interest , but this leads to behaviors in ____________ interest.
a. self; self
b. self; society’s
c. society’s; society’s
d. society’s; self
9. The law of diminishing (marginal) returns states that as more of a variable factor is added to a certain amount of a fixed factor, beyond some point:
a. Total physical product begins to fall
b. The marginal physical product rises
c. The marginal physical product falls
d. The average physical product falls
10. Why is the law of diminishing marginal returns true?
a. specialization and division of labor
b. spreading the average fixed cost
c. limited capital
d. all factors being variable in the long-run
Answers: B B B A D A C B C C
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopoly?
a. one seller of the product
b. low barriers to entry
c. close substitute products
d. perfect information
2. In pure monopoly, what is the relation between the price and the marginal revenue?
a. the price is greater than the marginal revenue
b. the price is less than the marginal revenue
c. there is no relation
d. they are equal
3. In order to maximize profits, a monopoly company will produce that quantity at which the:
a. marginal revenue equals average total cost
b. price equals marginal revenue
c. marginal revenue equals marginal cost
d. total revenue equals total cost
4. Quantity Price Total Cost
1 $100 $ 60
2 95 130
3 90 210
4 85 300
5 80 400
This monopolist should produce:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
5. Compared to the case of perfect competition, a monopolist is more likely to:
a. charge a higher price
b. produce a lower quantity of the product
c. make a greater amount of economic profit
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following is necessary for a natural monopoly?
a. economies of scale
b. a high proportion of the total cost is the cost of capital goods
c. the market is very small
d. all of the above
7. Which of the following is true about the way by which SDG&E has been regulated by the PUC?
a. SDG&E has been allowed to earn very high economic profits
b. The profits of SDG&E are calculated as a percent of the value of the capital goods
c. When the demand for electricity would fall, the price of electricity would also fall
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following best defines price discrimination?
a. charging different prices on the basis of race
b. charging different prices for goods with different costs of production
c. charging different prices based on cost-of-service differences
d. selling a certain product of given quality and cost per unit at different prices to different buyers
9. In order to practice price discrimination, which of the following is needed?
a. some degree of monopoly power
b. an ability to separate the market
c. an ability to prevent reselling
d. all of the above
10. In price discrimination, which section of the market is charged the higher price?
a. the section with the richest people
b. the section with the oldest people
c. the section with the most inelastic demand
d. the section with the most elastic demand
Answers: A A C C D D B D D C
1. Which of the following concepts represents the extra revenue a firm receives from the services of an additional unit of a factor of production?
a. total revenue
b. marginal physical product
c. marginal revenus product
d. marginal revenue
2. Workers Quantity Produced
1 15
2 28
3 39
4 48
5 55
6 60
This company is a profit-maximizing firm selling in a competitive product market and hiring in a competitive labor market. It uses semi-skilled labor to produce dampers used in office building ventilation systems. Assume that the current market price per damper is $50 and that the prevailing weekly salary per semi-skilled worker is $550. This company should employ ______ workers.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
3. The demand for labor is the same as the
a. marginal revenue product
b. marginal physical product
c. marginal cost
d. wage
4. The demand for labor slopes down and to the right because of
a. the law of demand
b. the iron law of wages
c. the law of diminishing marginal returns
d. economies of scale
5. The demand for labor will be more elastic if:
a. there are few substitutes for labor
b. there is a short time under consideration
c. labor is a large percent of the total cost of production
d. the demand for the product is relatively inelastic
e. all of the above
6. Skills that can be transferred to other employers are called:
a. general skills
b. specific skills
c. non-pecuniary skills
d. all of the above
7. Which skills are most likely to be paid for by the employer?
a. General skills
b. Specific skills
c. Educational skills
8. If worker A earns more in wages than worker B, it could be because:
a. The product made by worker A sells for a higher price than that made by worker B
b. Worker A uses more capital per worker than worker B
c. Worker A has more natural ability than worker B
d. All of the above
9. Skills that embodied in a person are called
a. Human capital
b. Embodied skills
c. Physical capital
d. Experience skills
10. “Treating an individual as typical of a group” is the definition of
a. pure discrimination
b. statistical discrimination
c. human capital
d. specific skills
Answers: C B A C C A B D A B
1. If there are 50 firms in a industry, each selling 2% of the total sales, the concentration ratio is:
a. 50%
b. 2% €
c. 100%
d. 8%
2. When Daimler Benz, maker of the Mercedes, bought Chrysler, the merger was
a. horizontal
b. vertical
c. conglomerate
Questions 3 through 10 involve the functions of the government in a world of laissez faire. The functions are the following:
A. Create and Enforce the "Rules"
B. Promote or Maintain Competition
C. Provide Information
D. Provide Public Goods
E. Reduce Negative Externalities (External Costs) through regulations or through taxes
F. Subsidize Positive Externalities (External Benefits)
G. Provide Merit Goods
H. Redistribute Income on the Basis of Need
For each of the following, choose the letter that best describes the function of government.
3. The government provides anti-trust laws.
4. The government subsidizes the building of new stadiums and arenas.
5. The government provides for military defense.
6. The government has a program of social security to provide a pension for the elderly.
7. The government requires that all gasoline stations post their prices in signs large enough
to be seen by a reasonable person from the street.
8. The government requires people to have a smog control device in their cars.
9. The government makes the beach free for everyone
10. The government makes laws that determine certain behaviors that a corporation must engage in and other behaviors that a corporation cannot engage in.
Answers: D A B F D H C E G A
1. The largest source of tax revenue for the federal government is:
a. the personal income tax
b. the social security tax
c. the property tax
d. the sales tax
2. When my income was $100,000, I paid $10,000 in taxes. When my income became $200,000, I paid $40,000 in taxes. My marginal tax rate is:
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
3. The tax is question #2 is:
a. progressive
b. regressive
c. proportional
4. Which of the following taxes is regressive?
a. the federal income tax
b. the state income tax
c. the sales tax
d. the Medicare tax
5. Assume that there are two goods, A and B. In 1996, Americans produced 10 units of A at a price of $10 and 20 units of B at a price of $20. In 2002, Americans produced 20 units of A at a price of $20 and 30 units of B at a price of $30. The Nominal GDP for 2002 is:
a. $100
b. $400
c. $500
d. $900
e. $1300
6. Using the numbers in question 5, the Real GDP for 2002 is:
a. $400 b. $500 c. $800 d. $900 e. $1,300
7. Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. Business Investment Spending occurs when individuals buy stock in the stock market
b. Productivity is the United States grew very slowly between 1973 and 1996
c. Because of discouraged workers, the official unemployment rate is too high
d. “Full employment” occurs when there is no frictional unemployment
8. Immediately after a trough, we would expect to have a/an
a. peak
b. recession
c. recovery
d. another trough
9. Last week, Martha spent one day cleaning a house. For this, she was paid $50. The rest of the week, she spent looking for a job. Martha would be classified as
a. employed
b. unemployed
c. not in the labor force
10. John lost his accounting job when Montgomery Wards closed its stores in San Diego. He looked for a similar job for ten months before finding an accounting job at Sears. During the month John was unemployed, he was
a. frictionally unemployed
b. seasonally unemployed
c. cyclically unemployed
d. structurally unemployed
Answers: A C A C E C B C A D
1. Define average tax rate
Define marginal tax rate
2. Define progressive tax
Define regressive tax
Define proportional tax
3. Define indexation
4. Define Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Define Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
5. Define business investment spending
6. Briefly explain how the official unemployment rate is calculated.
7. Define frictional unemployment
Define cyclical unemployment
Define structural unemployment
Define “full employment”
Economics 100 Quiz #7, Fall 2002
1. Assume that there are only two goods: A and B
In the base year, Quantity Price
A 10 $1
B 10 $4
In the current year, Quantity Price
A 20 $ 5
B 25 $20
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the current year is:
a. 50
b. 100
c. 200
d. 500
e. 600
2. Which of the following groups is most hurt by unexpected inflation?
a. workers with cost of living adjustments in their labor contracts
b. homeowners
c. people with large debts to pay for their homes and cars
d. people with large retirement savings held in savings accounts
3. If the nominal interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 2%, the real interest rate is:
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 7%
e. 2 ½%
4. For which of the following reasons might inflation cause Real GDP to grow slower than it otherwise would?
a. Inflation makes everyone poorer
b. Inflation reduces the value of consumer debt
c. Inflation increases business investment spending
d. Inflation decreases savings in financial form
5. Disposable Income is equal to:
a. National Income c. National Income Minus Taxes
b. Real GDP
c. National Income Minus Taxes
d. National Income Minus Taxes Plus Transfers
6. Assume that Potential Real GDP equals $10,000. National Income is therefore $10,000. Of this, consumers will pay $2,000 in taxes, save $1,000, and spend $7,000 on consumer goods. Business Investment spending is $2000. In order to avoid recessions and inflation (to have equilibrium), the government should have a:
a. balanced budget
b. budget deficit of $1000
c. budget surplus of $1000
d. budget deficit of $2000
7. According to Keynes, when the Great Depression started, the government should have:
a. done nothing
b. decreased the money supply
c. had a large increase in government spending
d. enacted high tariffs, such as the Smoot-Hawley Tariff
8. If the government lowers taxes by $10 billion, the Real GDP will rise by
a. more than $10 billion
b. less than $10 billion
c. exactly $10 billion
9. Which of the following is an automatic stabilizer?
a. unemployment benefits
b. spending on education
c. defense spending
d. net interest
10. “Crowding out” means that
a. a government budget deficit lowers interest rates and causes investment spending to rise
b. an increase in marginal tax rates lowers production
c. a government budget deficit raises interest rates and causes investment spending to fall
d. a government budget deficit raises American exports and lowers American imports
Answers: D D B D D C C A A C
1. Which of the following IS a function of money?
a. medium of exchange
b. store of value
c. unit of accounting
d. all of the above
2. Which of the following is a component of M-1?
a. savings deposits
b. credit card
c. checkable deposits
d. gold
3. Which of the following is a NOT component of M-2?
a. small time deposits
b. money market mutual funds
c. stocks
d. checkable deposits
4. Which of the following is true about the Federal Reserve System (Fed)?
a. it is a system of 12 central banks
b. its Board of Governors is elected by a vote of the people
c. its main policy-making body is the FDIC
d. it accepts deposits from the public and makes loans to businesses
e. all of the above
5. An IOU of the Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco to Bank of America is called:
a. discounts
b. federal funds
c. reserves
d. collateral
6. Which of the following is the most liquid?
a. a savings account
b. a 6 month CD
c. a home
d. water
7. The monetary base is composed of:
a. gold and silver
b. currency only
c. currency and reserves
d. currency and checkable deposits
8. If the monetary base is increased by $1,000 and the reserve requirement is 10% (1/10), by how much will the money supply be increased?
a. $100
b. $1,000
c. $5,000
d. $10,000
9. If the Federal Reserve wishes to increase the money supply, it should:
a. raise the reserve requirement
b. raise the discount rate
c. buy Treasury securities in the open market
d. all of the above
10. An increase in the money supply will cause interest rates to
a. rise
b. fall
c. remain unchanged
Answers: D C C A C A C D C B
Current Affair 4 May 2017
#current_affairs_04_05_2017
1. Pakistan will hopefully get financial allocation of $ 2.5 billion as infrastructural financing from Asian Development Bank (ADB), which would help country’s economy to post 7 per cent growth rate by 2019.
2. Asian Boxing Championship started in Tashkent, Uzbekistan
3. In current FIFA (Football) rankings Pakistan at 201. India at 100. And Brazil on top.
4. PCB sends $60 million notice of dispute to BCCI over breach of agreement.
5. International fire fighters day observed today
6. Pakistan junior girls' netball team left for Jeonju, Korea to participate in 10th Asian Youth Girls Netball Championship 2017 which will be held from May 6 to 13.
300 words for legal drafting
300 LEGAL Words are most helpful for Legal drafting.
Expedient – To Prioritize , to rush
Cavil – Argument by which a conclusion evidently false , is drawn from a principle evidently true.
Elusive – Difficult to find , catch or achieve.
Scuffle – a short , confused fight or struggle at close quarters.
Credential – a qualification, achievement , quality, or aspect of a person ‘s background , especially when used to indicate their suitability for something.
Oblivious – Aware.
Accustomed – Customary ; usual.
Treacherous – Guilty of or involving betrayal.
Erudite – learned.
Accentuating – More noticeable.
Crescendo – Progressive increase in intensity.
Tedious –Too long , slow or dull.
Dreadful – involving great suffering.
Enigma – Mysterious or difficult to understand.
Sceptical – Doubtful.
Sardonic – grimly mocking or cynical.
Habeas corpus – a prerogative writ to a person who detains another in custody and which commands him to produce or ‘ have the body of that person before him ‘
Mesne – middle, intervening or tame by nature.
Per se – by itself
Nocumentum – an annoying , unpleasant or obnoxious thing or ptactice.
Non obstante – notwithstanding
Prima facie – on the face of it.
Aequitas – Equity i.e fair or just according to natural law.
Bona fide – in good faith.
Certiorari – a writ of a superior court calling forth the records and entire proceedings of an inferior court or a writ by which causes are removed from an inferior court into a superior court.
Obiter dictum – an incidental and collateral opinion uttered by a judge while delivering a judgement and which is not binding.
Pari material – on the same material.
Pendente lite – during the process of litigation.
Supra – above.
Status quo – the state in which the things are , or were.
Volkogeist – general awareness of the people.
Res judicata – a case or suit already decided.
RE – in the matter of.
Ratio Legis – according to spirit of law
Scienter – knowledge ; an allegation in a pleading that the thing has been done knowingly.
Ex gratia –as an act of grace or favour.
In rem – an act , proceeding or right available against the world at large, as opposed to in personam.
Noscitur a socits – a word known by its associates , i.e the meaning of a word cab be gathered from the context.
Res sub judicata – a matter under judicial consideration.
Ad hoc – created or done for a particular purpose as necessary.
Pertinent – Relevant or applicable to a particular matter , apposite.
Curative petition – question arises whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgment / order of the Supreme Court, after dismissal of a review petition
Erect –rigidly upright or straight.
Advent – arrival of a notable person or thing.
Submergence – to cover ; bury.
Vicinity –the area near or surrounding a particular place.
Detention –the act of detaining someone or the state of being in official custody.
Rebuttable – an instance of rebutting evidence or an accusation.
Preclude – prevent from happening ; make impossible.
Discrepancy – an illogical or surprising lack of compatibility or similarity between two or more facts.
Superannuation – pension paid to a retired employee who has contributed to a superannuation fund.
Ordinance – An authoritative order
Promulgation – to make known by open declaration; publish ; proclaim formally or put into operation.
Consortium – the right of association and companionship with one’s husband or wife
Averred – allege as a fact in support of a plea
Estoppel – the principle which precludes a person from asserting something contrary to what is implied by a previous action or statement of that person or by a previous pertinent judicial determination.
Plenary – unqualified ; absolute
Impugned – dispute the truth , validity or honesty of ( a statement or motive ) ; call into question.
Prejudiced – harm or injury that results or may result from some action or judgement.
Legal Luminary – a person who inspires or influences others , especially one prominent in a particular sphere.
Plagiarized – the act of appropriating the literary composition of another , or parts or passages of his writings , or the ideas or language of the same , and passing them off as the product of one’s own mind.
Evacuee – A person evacuated from a place of danger.
Demarcate – Set the boundaries or limits of.
Unfettered – not confined or restricted
Discernible – able to be discerned ; perceptible.
Arenas – a place or scene of activity , debate , or conflict.
Transgression – An act that goes against a law , or code of conduct ; an offence.
Construed – interpret in a particular way.
Consonance – Agreement or compatibility , between opinions or actions.
Retrospectively – looking back.
Dissuade – persuade not to take a particular course of action.
Rationale – set of reasons.
Embezzlement – Theft or misappropriation of funds placed in one’s trust or belongings to one’s employer.
Perished - die , especially in a violent or sudden way.
Inter alia – among other things
Arbitration – the use of an arbitrator to settle a dispute.
